For what it's worth, my comments are not about anything "neoliberal", nor do I discuss Plato's (or Aristotle's) approaches to non-Greeks (nor does the word, 'race' as we use it relate to their concept of what that term might mean for them). I do not recall reading about their views of non-Greeks. Both of them worked with the wealthy citizens of Greece. Aristotle and his father worked for Macedonians, who considered themselves culturally distinct from the Athenians, who were generally annoying to Macedonians. But this is not a race issue. Since you seem to know about Plato and Aristotle, and/or 21st neoliberals, feel free to provide evidence for your argument.