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[–]Feather 18 insightful - 9 fun18 insightful - 8 fun19 insightful - 9 fun -  (2 children)

to not use any gendered language

So how does this work with two trans people, one who insists that no gendered language be used and the other who insists on being called their preferred gender pronouns? Which one gets to win and make the other person do what they want?

[–]PeakingPeachEater 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Exactly! Lol

Or how does it work in other countries where we have gendered language? Are they going to call us "discrimatory" for not using "gender-neutral" pronouns that don't exist on our language?

I don't understand why some Americans want to change OTHER countries' languages with words like "LatinX", which doesn't make any sense grammatically in Portuguese or Spanish. It sounds ridiculous.

I have American friends who use that term too...even with Latin heritage...disappointing.

[–]MezozoicGay 5 insightful - 1 fun5 insightful - 0 fun6 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

In our language almost every word is gendered when speaking to someone, so just by suffixes you know what sex person have. So to put here special pronouns, they will need to change ending to every second world in whole language. Which will be very stupid and unrealistic. And our language is "pro-drop", so we are dropping all words that are not needed if it is understandable from context. For example just saying "Had read the book" will say who had read the book by suffixes. So this phrase with different suffix of word "read" will mean either he had read the book (читав, lone "л" is changing to "в" for better sounding in our language), or she (читала), or it (читало), or they (читали). And that with everything. All this pronouns thing makes no sense there at all, just because there are no pronounses at all.