I have been doing some reading on Jesus

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[–]Vulptex 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Why not keep using Greek or Hebrew so there would be none at all?

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

The Catholic Church was established in Rome and that’s why it used Latin. In the Greek Orthodox Church they use Greek, and they agree with the Catholics concerning the first 1000 years.

[–]Vulptex 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Yeah, with their edited Greek version. Look up Marcion to get an idea of how badly the church mingled with their books. And even Marcion's version has plenty of detectable additions and alterations. Also look at the Hebrew Matthews which retain some earlier readings not found in any canonical edition.

There was no Catholic or Orthodox division before 1000 AD. People used whatever language they knew. If they didn't want anything to be lost in translation, they would've used Greek and Hebrew and Aramaic, not Latin.