you are viewing a single comment's thread.

view the rest of the comments →

[–]SerpensInferna 12 insightful - 1 fun12 insightful - 0 fun13 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

I would argue that Tacitus included that tidbit to compare how far the Romans were falling morally - the Germanic tribes were the original noble savages, after all. The Germans may have killed homosexual men, but I don't think we can take Tacitus at his word alone.

On the other hand, Aristotle mentions that Celts openly approved of sexual relations between men, and Diodorus writes of how Celtic men had sexual relations with each other in ways that baffled the Greeks because they were not concerned with age or beauty.

So. Take that as you will. We will probably never know the truth, only the truth through ancient writer's biases.

[–]KingDickThe2nd 5 insightful - 1 fun5 insightful - 0 fun6 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

On the other hand, Aristotle mentions that Celts openly approved of sexual relations between men, and Diodorus writes of how Celtic men had sexual relations with each other in ways that baffled the Greeks because they were not concerned with age or beauty.

Can you provide some evidence/sources for this?

The only translations that I can find that state that it involved sex between adult men also convert pederasty into being sex between adult men.

This book translates to both Aristotle and Diodorus as talking about pederasty.

[–]SerpensInferna 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I've taken both from "War, Women, and Druids: Eyewitness Reports and Early Accounts of the Ancient Celts", by Philip Freeman (2002).

Aristotle from his "Politics", Diodorus in I believe his "Library of History".