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[–]ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria[S] 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

but until this past decade, nearly all trans people were extremely gender nonconforming in addition to showing signs of lifelong, severe sex and genital dysphoria.

What do those 2 things have to do with each other? If people can be gender conforming without having severe sex dysphoria, why can't they do the reverse?

[–]worried19 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

It's a clinical sign of transsexuality and has been since transsexuality was first diagnosed.

[–]ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria[S] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I mean, that's a bit of a self-fulfilling prophecy, isn't it? If you dismiss anyone who has dysphoria but isn't GNC as "ROGD" and not really trans, then yeah, you'll find that 100% of the people you consider to be transsexual are GNC. But at that point, you're twisting the data to fit into the categories you decided are "legitimate", not building your categories around the data.