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[–]TooMuchClay 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

The Roman Empire only truly died in the 15th century with the Turkish conquest of Constantinople - the then capital. I'd say it was a husk after the Venetian crusade, but that's hardly "hundreds of years" after "Rome"

Those parts of Europe converted "a thousand years later" were converted by the same Greceo-Roman Orthodox-Catholic culture. Hands down.

You are showing your ignorance of history and making the same mistakes as those disagreeing with you: you've simplified history to the point of nonsense. But you are correct there is no "white" culture, the particular cultural thread they are grasping for can be found anywhere in any skin colour or ethnicity: to deny that is to betray the core tenants of what they supposedly admire

[–]Site_rly_sux 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

What you're suggesting is that anyone who had ancestors existing contemporaneously with a fragment of Rome is...therefore white?

Its nonsense. Virtually anyone who had children 2000 years ago is the ancestor of virtually everyone alive today. There is nothing special that the Baltic Crusaders did to pagan Lithuanians that imparted whiteness on them, at the point of a sword. Whether or not Byzantium stood at the time had no difference to the Baltic Crusade. I am telling you that whiteness is not a factor of being touched by Rome, you cannot bend or falsify history to make that fit

Edit - just still trying to get my head round what is honestly one of the more retarded takes in this thread.

So you're saying that if the Turks in Asia minor were faster at capturing istenpolis/Istanbul and wiping out the ERE...that if the Turks did that quicker - say, completing their conquests earlier than the Baltic crusade or the christianisation of the Norse - then because Rome didn't exist any more, neither the Norwegians or Lithuanians would be considered "white" today?