What makes the KJV any different? If you're really worried about the fake translations yoy should be using an interlinear and checking to make sure even the interlinear gives you the right word.

But wait, there's also a whole bunch of differences between manuscripts and you have to pick the right ones. And if you think that's tricky there's also interpolations and edits, many deliberate, all over the place with no manuscript evidence at all because the church destroyed everything it didn't like.

Oh and wait, what if Greek isn't even the original language of half the books and is itself a translation of a long-lost original? How are we going to get that?

That seems like an impossible task. All for something that was ultimately written by men, which is the simple truth. The Bible was created by the church when it decided which books it liked and didn't like. And Jews did the same thing with the Old Testament. Scribes are often criticized in both testaments; and in fact Jeremiah 7-8 quite explicitly accuses them of falsifying things, and even calls out two specific things they added to the books of law (animal sacrifice and death penalty by burning). And sure enough, they are both mandated in our current copies.

And if you've ever found the Sermon on the Mount confusing with regard to the "you have heard that it was said...but I say to do this instead" part, if we accept that the previous bit about "not one letter will be abolished from the law" was probably inserted later, then the piece begins with the part about "if your justness does not exceed that of the SCRIBES and Pharisees". Think about what that's implying then, given that Jesus goes on to directly rebuke multiple Old Testament laws. And the typical dispensationalist argument won't cut it, because this took place before the resurrection. And throughout the Old Testament the characters seem to be either unaware of half the laws or don't follow them.