It varies from person to person. There's no one "feeling" that is more or less valid than any other feelings. It's like the concept of "home". Everyone has a different personal definition, and while there are legal definitions of "home", home is a subjective concept that connotates a common, abstract experience.

So, like home, we can apply to woman and any other word, according to you.

Unlike gender, misogyny is something that objectively exists, in the sense that we can objective observe and measure it in a reliable way.

Except we can't, if we don't have an objective meaning to women. So tell me, if all women decided to "identify" as men tomorrow, would they stop being subjected to mysogyny because they're men now?