Anyone else weirded out when people consistently use the word “man,” but not the word “woman?”

submitted by catawampus from self.GenderCritical

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[–]catawampus[S] 8 insightful - 1 fun8 insightful - 0 fun9 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

I think this closely resembles how I’ve noticed it being used. “Ladies,” “girls,” and “females” being used the most, but using “women” or “woman” isn’t as common. And then there’s “womenfolk,” which sounds odd to me at this point.

That’s interesting, thank you for your insight. Why was “ladies” rejected? I hear it everywhere.

[–]missdaisycan 7 insightful - 1 fun7 insightful - 0 fun8 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

I remember decades ago, some (most?) feminists balked at the term "ladies" due to the gender constrictions of its use. e.g. "That's not ladylike behavior!"

[–][deleted] 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Similarly, it has class connotations, and I feel like I once read it being racially used, as well - that black women weren't called or considered ladies, and it was a dividing term.

[–]jkfinn 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I think this closely resembles how I’ve noticed it being used. “Ladies,” “girls,” and “females” being used the most, but using “women” or “woman” isn’t as common. And then there’s “womenfolk,” which sounds odd to me at this point.

That’s interesting, thank you for your insight. Why was “ladies” rejected? I hear it everywhere.

I think both "ladies" and "womenfolk" are antiquated. Ladies/Lords were royalty and then Ladies descending in the 19thc to "ladies of the night." The second wave totally rejected it except in historical references, as did most women and men from say 1955-2005.