It's the mid-1950s and I'm a reasonably well-informed, newspaper- and news magazine-reading American. How obvious is it that the Guatemala and Iran coups d'état happened with heavy input from United Fruit and Anglo-Iranian Oil, respectively?

submitted by Chipit from reddit.com

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[–]AllStr8SexIsRape 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

I'm tired of the meme that the overthrown Iranian government was "democratically elected." Big deal, so was Hitler. How does that justify the crimes against humanity they have committed since 1979?

[–]Chipit[S] 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun -  (1 child)

The 1952 government was democratically elected. The one that the CIA overthrew and replaced with the Shah.

In 1979 Carter greenlighted the overthrow of the Shah, because he was a meanie and made Carter feel sad. That nice man the Ayatollah Khomeini totally pinky swore to stay a US ally afterwards. And then oops! He didn't.

[–]AllStr8SexIsRape 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Hitler was also "democratically elected." The CIA was right to install the Shah. West knows best. Jimmah Cahtah is a racist whaht-Suthun-trayush war criminal.