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[–][deleted] 8 insightful - 1 fun8 insightful - 0 fun9 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

I understand that sexual orientation and paraphilias exist separately to each other, however I'm not sure why someone who is sexually attracted to men would have an inverted sexuality towards women.

[–]reluctant_commenter[S] 7 insightful - 1 fun7 insightful - 0 fun8 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Like, what causes it? Well, it seems like there is some significant portion of genetic predisposition to paraphilias in general-- I would guess some gay men are much more or less predisposed than others. What environmental factor pulls the trigger on the loaded gun of genetics? Not sure...

[–][deleted] 8 insightful - 1 fun8 insightful - 0 fun9 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Yeah my money is on it being neurological too. However I'm uncertain how it fits in conceptually with the agp / hsts model which links transgender and sexuality.

[–]reluctant_commenter[S] 11 insightful - 1 fun11 insightful - 0 fun12 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Well, I think it might be like this.

  • Some boys/men are super feminine. They have a tough time fitting into the world around them because of it, and end up deciding that life would frankly be easier if they just changed a few things and lived appearing as a woman. It is not so hard to pass for them. Most of these men are homosexual but some could be "straight transsexual" or "bisexual transsexual" I guess. (Being GNC is correlated with being LGB)

  • Some boys/men are genetically predisposed to have or to develop paraphilias. Because most men are straight, most of these people will be straight, but of course a minority are GB men.

Does that sorta make sense? If you had a gay man with AGP then I suppose he is "homosexual transsexual" literally speaking, since he is homosexual and trans, but-- he might not match that profile at all, e.g. a gay man who is not very GNC and who has an inclination for paraphilias decides to transition later in life.