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[–][deleted] 12 insightful - 3 fun12 insightful - 2 fun13 insightful - 3 fun -  (0 children)

Absolutely. Another problem I see with the concept of a fetish is that people assume it's some kind of gatekeeper. Once the fetish is present, then the person can have sex, because they're sufficiently physiologically aroused (where arousal certainly is conducive to intercourse.) Or that normal sexual desire won't be present in that person until the fetish is present and acted on. All roads, apparently, lead to sex. Everyone desires sex.

But what if it's only the fetish a person wants, and they don't have an intrinsic motivation for sex? Think of the 10% of AGP with an orientation of identity of asexual.

I think both are right, it depends on that individual for how much of their sexuality is comprised of a normal desire, and how much is fetishistic. Most people want plain sex. Some people want plain sex and some kink with it. There. I've defined a continuum. Take it to it's logical conclusion--some people only want kink, and no sex.