Socks is really upset

submitted by American_Muskrat from hostux.pics

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[–]Pajeet_my_son 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

It’s too far-fetched to call Indians Caucasian since their dominant genetic ancestry is Dravidian or South Asian. If anything, populations from West Eurasia (Turkey, the Caucasus, Iran, Afghanistan, and Pakistan), as well as Arabs and North Africans, are closer to the historical definition of Caucasian than Indians are.

[–]LarrySwinger2 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

How come Arabs fall under Caucasian when their language is a Semitic one?

[–]Pajeet_my_son 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

  • The term "Caucasian" comes from the Caucasus Mountains but was used to classify people from Europe, North Africa, the Middle East, and South Asia by physical traits. Today, many in the Caucasus, like Chechens and Avars, are Muslim.

  • "Semitic" refers to a linguistic classification rather than a racial one, describing speakers of Semitic languages like Arabic, Hebrew, and Aramaic. The term originally comes from the biblical classification of Semites as descendants of Shem.

[–]LarrySwinger2 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Yeah but all the other Caucasians are Aryans and while Semite is essentially a linguistic classification, the speakers of those languages are also racially related and they aren't Aryans. You can point to physical similarities between Europeans and Chinamen if you want, that doesn't mean it's significant to classify them together.