That is not the definition you have used in similar context as you think a man with GAMP can he heterosexual

I'll respond, because another poster, /u/Vulvamort, had the same question, that may not have been sufficiently answered.

I said that a paraphilia of gyneandromorphophilia can coexist alongside of a desire for age appropriate opposite sex partners strictly on the basis of that sex and for the normal sex acts--heterosexuality. This is an empirical fact, not a hypothetical. Gyneandromorphophilia only appears to exist in men. That does not mean that gyneandromorphs are necessarily excluded from women's pool of sexual partners. Gyneandromorpophilia refers to a particular sexual motivation, not a behavior. (Such as if you paid me 1 million dollars to have sex with a gyneandromorph, I would collect that million dollars.) When I said they can be heterosexual, I was indicating that they may not be 100% GAMP, and they usually are not. Typically they like both women and trans women (GAMs,) in varying proportions. People only with the paraphilia of GAMP appear to exist, and they often appear to have been at one point having no interest in GAMs, just normal women. Once this paraphilically vulnerable person discovers the existence of "women" with penises, it is possible for them to loose their interest in normal women in exclusive exchange for their new-found interest in gyneandromorphs.

Now, I could see how my statement that a man who likes highly feminized men--that they can be heterosexual--is at face value an absurd thing, but the heterosexuality only refers to one portion of their overall sexual makeup, the other part being GAMP. Heterosexual is not the complete package.

Consequent to that, the way I'm using the word heterosexual isn't to say that if a man is labeled heterosexual, that they can never be interested in men, but may only have an interest in men on the basis of a paraphilia. If a man has an interest in men the same way that a gay man does, then heterosexuality is off the table. Incidentally, GAMPs are not interested in men men.

I do not treat paraphilias as qualifiers to heterosexuality, in the way that a man may have a preference for blondes. If I did, then my insistence that a man who likes feminized men is somehow heterosexual would then be a contradiction. This is due to my understanding of the phenomena, which I share with many sex researchers, that paraphilic interests are as unique and alive as standalone things as heterosexuality is. GAMP is probably the most difficult one to talk about, because of its similarity to the het/homo/bisexualities. If we were instead talking about something such as erotic asphyxiation, it would be easier, and we would probably readily agree that waterboarding a person for sexual gratification isn't anything like the way that the overwhelming majority get theirs, and needs a different classification. Likewise, if a person only wanted to have sex with women and waterboard men, then I assume that most people would agree that "bisexual" is an inappropriate label, or at least highly questionable, for our Geneva-convention-violating agent. Because I don't treat paraphilias as qualifiers, they cannot be included in the definition of het/homo/bi, because these three are about sex, not waterboarding.

It's a personal policy that if I concede a point to another person, or make a conceptual shift in a discussion, that I'll say as much. I don't want to be the smartest person in the room, because then I'm not learning anything.