you are viewing a single comment's thread.

view the rest of the comments →

[–]letsgobish29 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

of course she was conscious on the dance floor? she was making out with them then went into a closet. do you really think they sauntered an unconscious body through the club and nobody noticed? be realistic.

after they had sex she slumped, exhausted in the closet and passed out. the charge was that she was too drunk to consent. if she was actually unconscious it's outright rape with a diff charge. so she was too drunk to consent. but they apparently were not, even they were also drunk. that discrepancy, whilst making no sense, does exist in all western law.

[–]StibbyMaBa 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

How could they have not consented? They were the ones fucking her. Or are you saying that she was judged too drunk to consent, while they weren't judged too drunk to assess whether she consented

[–]Xas 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Are you suggesting that a man that initiates sex always consents regardless of how drunk he is?

[–]StibbyMaBa 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Yes