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[–]outrageousboote 5 insightful - 1 fun5 insightful - 0 fun6 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

I debunked this mixed claim weeks ago, and now you are reneging on the lack of admixture between natives and Iberian conquerors that you claimed originally and are yet again implying Europeans are heavily mixed while not making similar claims about any other group (with the exception of opportunistically reneging your Mexican claim).

I gave links which crush the conception of high levels of admixture with non-European groups to the point of being "mixed" among Europeans, using things like the migration period is irrelevant as the mixing was between the same continental racial group (a German-Swede mix is different from a Nigerian-German mix, a Korean-Chinese mix is different form a hapa).

Even after all the invasions, interactions etc. from non-European peoples Europe has faced admixture has stayed minor and Europeans distinct, so bringing this up does not prove anything.

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

yet again implying Europeans are heavily mixed

I didn't say this. It seems your arguments (before and now) focus mainly on predominantly white vs predominantly non-white genes in Europeans. I'm not really addressing this. My main argument is that there is a mixture of ethnicities, albeit less in some and more in others, but naturally Europeans are predominantly white-skinned, and regarding the Semitic or Hebrew groups, one would have great difficulty showing that these people are any different from Medeterranean white-skinned groups, even while appreciating that some Semitic groups try to marry ONLY Semitic people.