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[–]Vulptex 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

If 2/3 are genetic then how do certain intersex people develop opposite of their chromosomes? Now let's be clear here, this has to be the case from conception, so it's a poor argument for trannies being able to change sex. But it does disprove your idea that it's 2/3 genetic. Even standard variation among normal people disproves that, because otherwise sexual dimorphism would affect everyone in exactly the same way, but it doesn't.

I don't have any female traits, or at least not many. Otherwise why would I be complaining?

[–]hfxB0oyA 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Well, you do have complaining. 😄

[–]jet199[S] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Because no one develops 100% opposite to their chromosomes.

Women with part of a Y chromosome still have many male features and indeed are highly over represented in sports because they outperform other women and are more competitive.

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40279-014-0249-8

So you haven't disproved anything, you are just ignorant of the facts.

[–]Vulptex 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

What about Androgen-Insensitivity Syndrome?