Interestingly, if you read the ICC statement, the crimes that Israel is found to be committing fit perfectly with the legal definition of genocide.

Here's what the ICC says: "Notwithstanding any military goals they may have, the means Israel chose to achieve them in Gaza – namely, intentionally causing death, starvation, great suffering, and serious injury to body or health of the civilian population – are criminal."

They also write that "Israel has intentionally and systematically deprived the civilian population in all parts of Gaza of objects indispensable to human survival."

Here's the legal definition of genocide from the Genocide Convention (https://un.org/en/genocideprevention/documents/atrocity-crimes/Doc.1_Convention):

"Genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: (a) Killing members of the group; (b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; (c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; (d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; (e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group."

The ICC, by saying that Israel is "intentionally causing death, starvation, great suffering, and serious injury to body or health of the civilian population" as well as writing that Israel has "intentionally and systematically deprived the civilian population in all parts of Gaza of objects indispensable to human survival", implies that first of all, intent is there (notice the "intentionally") and secondly that the points a, b and c of the definition are met. Bear in mind that you only need to meet one point for it to be considered genocide as it's "any of the following acts".

Inescapable conclusion: it absolutely is a genocide.