Someone here might know "the law" far better than I do so if you have an idea here then chip in.

submitted by thomastheglassexpert from (zerohedge.com)

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[–]Jiminy 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Are you saying liberals that let illegals in should be held partly accountable for the illegals murders?

[–]thomastheglassexpert[S] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

What I specifically asked did not use the word liberal. I used the word accomplice. If I myself assisted in facilitating the death of another then the law says I am an accomplice. If the judges and DA's of a city let a real and known danger back on the street then why are they not being held criminally liable for that? My wonder is there some kind of shielding law/rule that protects them? Has that law been tested with a real death case?

[–]Jiminy 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

You didn't say it that's why I asked for clarification .

A judge or lawyer does have immunity for that. Judicial immunity.