ALL: Would removing "real life experience" requirements from trans healthcare benefit everyone?

submitted by ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria from (self.GCdebatesQT)

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[–]worried19 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (5 children)

As lots of you probably know, there's a "real life experience" requirement to get genital reconstructive surgery in the US, or hormones replacement therapy in the UK

Do you have a source on that? I'm not as familiar with surgeries on natal males, but current procedure in the USA is "affirmation only" and people are able to get testosterone and mastectomies without a medical diagnosis of gender dysphoria or any sign of gender nonconformity, even as minors.

[–]ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria[S] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

Yeah, you're able to get an orchiectomy (testicle removal) without "real life experience", but getting GRS requires it.

or any sign of gender nonconformity

What does gender nonconformity have to do with it? I think judging people's eligibility for transition by how well they fit into gender roles is a bad idea and reinforces stereotypes.

[–]worried19 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Not every gender nonconforming person is trans (obviously), but until this past decade, nearly all trans people were extremely gender nonconforming in addition to showing signs of lifelong, severe sex and genital dysphoria.

I did not know that about natal male surgeries. I'm glad surgeons are at least taking it seriously, given that the risks for vaginoplasty are even higher than for mastectomy.

[–]ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria[S] 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

but until this past decade, nearly all trans people were extremely gender nonconforming in addition to showing signs of lifelong, severe sex and genital dysphoria.

What do those 2 things have to do with each other? If people can be gender conforming without having severe sex dysphoria, why can't they do the reverse?

[–]worried19 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

It's a clinical sign of transsexuality and has been since transsexuality was first diagnosed.

[–]ntr4ctrAdult Male with gender dysphoria[S] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I mean, that's a bit of a self-fulfilling prophecy, isn't it? If you dismiss anyone who has dysphoria but isn't GNC as "ROGD" and not really trans, then yeah, you'll find that 100% of the people you consider to be transsexual are GNC. But at that point, you're twisting the data to fit into the categories you decided are "legitimate", not building your categories around the data.