you are viewing a single comment's thread.

view the rest of the comments →

[–][deleted]  (5 children)

[deleted]

    [–]MezozoicGaygay male 10 insightful - 2 fun10 insightful - 1 fun11 insightful - 2 fun -  (4 children)

    No, intersex people are almost never exceptions to the rule. Almost every intersex condition is occuring only in males or females. In 99.98% cases we can easily say their sex, and only in 0.02% it is harder, but still possible with just a few tests. While only in around 0.001% cases it is very hard to tell, but in those cases in general it does not matter at all much, and they should be just called as they are used to live or looking like, instead of trying to use those 0.001% as "gotchas".

    If you want to support intersex people: https://www.dsdfamilies.org/charity

    5 methods that are used to determine sex of a person, works for everyone, including all intersex cases (except one, which was understudied, so it is unknown reality of it): https://twitter.com/AlexAlicit/status/1346223299571961856

    And lets not forget that EVEN if they would be "3rd sex" (which are they not), then it is still not proves that "sex can be changed from one to another". It will make transwomen "3rd sex" or "4th sex", it will not make them women, it will not give them right to be grouped with women and enter women's spaces.

    In societies with 3 genders, where gay men are put as "neither men nor women" and doing "women's work" - they are not grouped with women and have their own 3rd gender spaces, different from women's and men's spaces.

    [–][deleted]  (3 children)

    [deleted]

      [–]MezozoicGaygay male 6 insightful - 1 fun6 insightful - 0 fun7 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

      That one case is the exception to the rule?

      It is unknow if it is. We don't have data on that person, as data is fragmented and was received more than 100 years ago, before modern methods of research.

      The definition of male or female can't be used to determine if the intersex people of that one case are male or female?

      Why? First of all - it can. Second - why should it matter? Just let them be. They are not changing their sex anyways, so they has nothing to do with being or not being transgender.

      Wouldn't it mean the definition of male or female is flawed because it can not perfectly categorize that one case, and that case is an exception which disproves the rule?

      We don't know if it disproves the rule. And until rule is not disproved, it works. Plus, if it works in 99.999999999% of cases, then there no reason to not use it, even if in 0.000000001% there will be set a special case.