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[–]SoCo 5 insightful - 3 fun5 insightful - 2 fun6 insightful - 3 fun -  (3 children)

When Ukraine came to us, broke and vulnerable, but refused our sucker deal, that was the last straw...

Of course we used our covert manipulation to cause the bloody civil war, with US meddling on the ground, paid sniper mercenaries in the bushes, that resulted in the coup we wanted and installation of our puppet dictator, all of which our weaponized media calls the "Revolution of Dignity".

We (the UN, US, NATO, etc) paid for and ran their referendum elections after wards. We even "vetted" their candidates, allowing only the ones we liked.

Since then, we've make Ukraine our bitch, forcing them into ever more risky positions to receive our funding and support, including perpetuating global warming nonsense, forcing broke Ukraine to peddle green energy wastes, cultivating their military and arms development, supporting their genocide against resistant Ukrainians in the East, and goading them for the last decade into preparing for a suicidal offensive attack on Russia, which was meant for 2020, but got delayed.

[–]Site_rly_sux 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

What you wrote was totally untrue but even if it was.

So what.

Why does America "overthrowing" or "coupling" ukraine justify what the muscovites have done these past months?

Ruzzia literally couped Nicaragua and Cuba and others. Shall America invade Cuba? If ruzzia can respond to America overthrowing Ukraine with a genocide, do you support an American genocide of Latin America?

Isn't it exactly what you're saying?

  1. America did a coup in Ukraine

  2. This provokes ruzzia into war

  3. So the genocide is America's fault because America did a coup

Okay so

Ruzzia did a coup in Cuba and Nicaragua.

This is provocative for America.

So it will be ruzzia's fault when America does a genocide.

I think that's your line of reasoning, right?

[–]SoCo 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

I'd like not to shift the topic to WhatAbsolutism

[–]Site_rly_sux 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

The OP link is about how America's activity in Ukraine "provoked" and justified ruzzia's invasion.

You already posted a comment to back up that argument.

So it's not shifting and not whataboutism.

I'm literally asking you.

Is it a general rule that

  1. Country A does a coup near country B

  2. Now country B is allowed to do a genocide.

It's not shifting, it's literally what you already wrote, I am asking you to explain your thesis.

Why does step 2 allow country B to do a genocide? Why did you type that? Why did you and OP say that "provocation" excuse a genocide? Explain yourself retard