you are viewing a single comment's thread.

view the rest of the comments →

[–]RichtoffLud 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Dude, you're confusing immigration with miscegenation, Europa has many ethnic groups? yes, but there was little miscegenation between these groups during the Middle Ages and until the Modern Age. But we now there is more nowadays, due to high forced immigration financing to White Countries.

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 3 fun1 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 3 fun -  (2 children)

So you make assumptions about the migration and Khanate periods that are false, and now want to attach historical research that indicates "miscegenation" did not happen in Europe? Miscegenation is a THEORY, published ahead of the 1864 election in order to scare honkies into voting for a racist. It worked, and helped put in place a number of post-Civil-war racist segregation laws. Until recently I was not legally permitted in my state to marry a person of color (from any other part of the world). States repealed that law as late as the 1960s. Another modern concept is white nationalism. Yes, there were previous groups in Europe who arranged marriages within their own families, their own extended families, their own towns, and so on. But the main approach to selecting a partner was not the selection of skin color. There are no records of referring to the selection of a white man. There are records complementing a woman with nice white skin, but this is merely aesthetic, not about the MASTER RACE. Marrying someone with a different skin color would depend on their wealth, association with the family, or other circumstances. In many cases, women were raped by the invatinding groups from the East and elsethere. Women and children were also traded throughout Europe. The children of slaves were often mixed. Were Europeans predomantly white-skinned and round-eyed? Yes, in the West, but not in Eastern Europe, or in part of Central Europe, where some of these traits are partially mixed. Consider much of Iberia, North Africa and the Eastern Mediterranean. Europeans have always been partially mixed, for many reasons.

[–]RichtoffLud 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun -  (1 child)

I already get your operation mode. There is no way to compare a period of 100 years (Khanate) with concrete periods that already existed for more than a thousand years, and lasted for more than centuries afterward, Khanate period did not determine the people of Europe. Please, Miscegenation is a theory? this is ONE guy's opinion, because David Goodman Croly says that Miscegenation is a theory, believe without analyzing the facts is very partial.

[–][deleted] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I already get your operation mode.

There's no 'operation mode'.

There is no way to compare a period of 100 years (Khanate)

Several hundred years (why don't you know this?)

concrete periods that already existed for more than a thousand years, and lasted for more than centuries afterward,

This is not a discussion of history. Compare the Golden Horde with the Huns.

Khanate period did not determine the people of Europe.

That's not the issue. The issue is that these are periods with relatively mixed ethnicities, even if by a low margin.

Miscegenation is a theory?

Yes - for the reasons I mention, and it's unrelated to pre-modern history.