The Tonight Show audience cheering at white population decline

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[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

Is this what your DNA and ethnographic research indicates? The "significance" of mixed-race ancestry is of course debatable, especially when you consider that these ancestors date back as much as 2000 years or more. In this context, the potential corruption of their "whiteness" is ridiculous, when one considers mixed-ethnicities in Europe, and especially Spain and Portugal.

[–]outrageousboote 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Large amounts of MENA or Arab admixture, or otherwise non native admixture in Spain or Portugal has been debunked by modern genetics studies, if that's what you are saying, but Mexicans for example are even up to half amerind on average, and this dates back only 500 years.

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Sources for any of this?

Regarding Spain: https://www.theguardian.com/world/2008/dec/07/genetics-conversion-catholicism-spain-religion

[–]outrageousboote 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

https://italianthro.blogspot.com/2014/09/overestimated-admixture-brisighelli-2012.html?m=1 Newer source

https://italianthro.blogspot.com/2014/06/mediterranean-sea-as-genetic-barrier.html?m=1

https://italianthro.blogspot.com/2011/10/moors-expelled-from-sicily-and-south.html?m=1

Focuses on Spain more:

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC1275654/

"The Islamic rule of Spain, which began in a.d. 711 and lasted almost 8 centuries, left only a minor contribution to the current Iberian Y-chromosome pool. The high-resolution analysis of the Y chromosome allows us to separate successive migratory components and to precisely quantify each historical layer."

I'm sure any overview of Mexican genetics would show a significant amerind component.

The article you linked doesn't show a study so a lot of important info such as the sample and its representativeness is missing, and what is interpreted as "Sephardic" (which could very well be different ancestry, which this critique seems to think.)

""To formally assess the impact of North African and Sephardic Jewish contributions on the indigenous population, we carried out admixture analysis, employing the mY estimator and treating the study populations as hybrids of three parental populations. We chose the Basques as the Iberian parental sample. This is justified on the basis of a relative absence of Muslim occupation of the Basque region and supported by the genetic distinctiveness of the Basque and neighboring Gascon samples (Figure 3).

In plain English, the authors could just as well have written: "Basques are distinct from other Iberians. This may be due to either (i) the fact that there were indeed differences between Basques and other Iberians even before the Muslim occupation/Jewish settlement: after all they occupy their own region, not Iberia-at-large, and speak a different language. Or, (ii) it could be that the rest of the Iberians have undergone substantial admixture with Muslims and Jews. We arbitrarily choose hypothesis (ii) as our premise, and ¡qué sorpresa! our data backs up our pre-supposed idea.""

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Thanks. I'll have a closer look.