If the US has been controlled by globohomo since the early 20th century, how come it fought the USSR and communism so hard during the Cold War? Why did they try to suppress liberal movements like the hippies?

submitted by FriedrichLudwig from self.debatealtright

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[–]antireddit 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

If the US has been controlled by globohomo since the early 20th century

Who said this? Globohomo really began to take shape after WW2 and only really solidified it's power since the fall of the USSR. Some of its roots happened earlier to be sure, but it's really been since the fall of Communism that it has achieved total domination of the west.

As for asking why it opposed the USSR, I dont really understand why that would be confusing to you? Globohomo is capitalist, so why wouldnt they oppose the USSR? The Neocons(basically the most militant and pro zionist wing of globohomo) hated the Soviet Union because Jews were no longer able to dominate it after Trotsky was run out of town. Stalin did use plenty of Jews as willing executioners, before also turning on them when he felt they became too powerful and threatening, but after Stalin the Soviets took active measures to curtail Jewish domination and it infuriated many Jewish Marxists, who then became anti communist Neocons.

[–]NeoRail 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Who said this? Globohomo really began to take shape after WW2 and only really solidified it's power since the fall of the USSR.

It depends on what exactly you mean by "globohomo". As far as I am aware, the term refers to "global homogenisation" and in that case the active effort towards this dates back to the sixties and no earlier. If you are looking at the ideology or power behind this drive, however, you will find that the USA has been a center of "globohomo" for far longer. I assume that OP is using the second interpretation.