You ask if he is judging himself, but you have completely missed what is going on in this psalm. It is even literally listed for you. "elohim stands in the congregation of el (the pantheon!)"

Yes, this fits perfectly in line with the reference to rulers being the ones with heavenly authority, as mentioned. The interesting thing about this is that this comes up a lot in the anti bible circles. Claiming things like "god said there was more than one god", but again, it refers to those in authority that are supposed to be acting on gods will. Either heavenly beings, or worldly leaders. In this case it is in reference to worldly leaders as heavenly hosts do not die. If you still have issue with this, it comes down then to your in ability to accept that words have multiple uses and are contextual. Also, nit picking.

nit picking: As a non native hebrew speaker, I would accept this summary:

Elohim is found 2,606 times in the King James Version. It is almost always translated as God or god(s) or some other divine being(s). There are 5 times the word is rendered as judge(s); 2 times as great; 2 times as mighty and once as exceedingly.

However to address your hebrew concern, I went further and broke up the direct ancient hebrew.

Base reference:

http://qbible.com/hebrew-old-testament/psalms/82.html

For the first verse the god judging god is the same word and context. God judging god. Either this is the golden sample you can use to destroy the entire bible, or its just the actual etymology in play. As a I mentioned originally, the meaning is historically recorded as changing over time as a cognate. The same way gay used to mean happy, but now it means happy or youre a fag. So I can say, it's gay to be gay.

For 6 and 8 however. There are two different way the elohim has been used. There are distinct references to elohim as a plural and as a singular. God talking about other beings, using a similar word in a different context. For all intents and purposes, the direct letter for letter, yes, it's the same.

Interestingly though, this specific verse in the very way you are looking at it, is used against the jews by Jesus in the new testament.

He uses it as an example that the written law, when taken literally as it is written and out of context, is full of shit.

John 10, Jesus tells some jews that he is gods son and they take offence at that. Understanding that these jews are supposed to be teachers of the law.

33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.”

34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside—

36 do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?

Essentially, in pslam 82, it is written as you are trying to explain it and Jesus says they're fools for trying to claim he can't be the son of God, because letter by letter, anyone teacher of the law could be God's out of context.

So. Which all of that, you being half right and half wrong, where to now?