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[–]ActuallyNot 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

I wouldn't be confident that that argument would work in court. Is there a legal precedent of what constitutes sufficient corruption of a government that makes all laws defunct?

[–][deleted] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Hahahahahaha.

"Legal precedent." Yes. Many countries have been founded on it, in fact.