you are viewing a single comment's thread.

view the rest of the comments →

[–]slushpilot 5 insightful - 2 fun5 insightful - 1 fun6 insightful - 2 fun -  (0 children)

26:00 is an important point, I did not realize this:

DSM5 changed the definition of "paraphilia" to consider consent of the other party, normalizing it based on that metric.

Now, consider that "the other party" just means the "target location" for erotic arousal: the argument suddenly falls apart when you include the "auto-" paraphilias which are based on a target location error.

Does that suddenly mean that because a man gives himself consent, that makes anything normal?