all 10 comments

[–]GConly 10 insightful - 1 fun10 insightful - 0 fun11 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

If they have ovaries they are an intersex female.

If they have testes they are an intersex male.

People with one gonad of each type have been infertile, as far as I know. It happens very rarely, about 1/million. Nearly always present as male and have a y chr because one teste is enough to produce enough testosterone to virilise the genitals normally.

You can only have a period of you have a uterus, and the prostaglandins to create cramps come from that too. No uterus = no cramps and no period.

Be warned, a LOT of transwomen like to lie and say they have an intersex condition

The metro article: I've seen numerous newspaper articles were men have claimed to be intersex, and get outed as bullshitting later on. The prime example was when a "woman" with an intersex condition was put into a men's prison.. Turns out it's a male father of four lying to parliament.

Doctors believe that the man’s condition is persistent Müllerian duct syndrome (PMDS), a rare condition where a person has external male genitalia and internal female reproductive organs.

He would have to have absorbed a female twin in utero. Also PMDS doesn't give you ovaries. So it smells like BS.

[–]supersmokio6420 8 insightful - 1 fun8 insightful - 0 fun9 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

As far as I'm aware, there are no recorded cases of a true human hermaphrodite -capable of producing both sexes gamete.

An intersex 'male' that can get pregnant and has ovaries is actually an intersex female - this is where the term "Assigned x at birth" actually comes from. They're actually female, but were put down as male based on external anatomy.

You're right that it comes down to sperm and egg production. There's no such thing as a female able to produce sperm or a male able to produce egg because to produce eggs is what female is, and likewise with sperm and male.

[–]BiologyIsReal 6 insightful - 1 fun6 insightful - 0 fun7 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

I've just answered your post on the debate sub, but I'll copy and paste my reply here.

So, about Persistent Müllerian Duct Syndrome (PMDS), here are some links explaining it in great detail:

https://rarediseases.info.nih.gov/diseases/8435/persistent-mullerian-duct-syndrome

https://medlineplus.gov/genetics/condition/persistent-mullerian-duct-syndrome/

https://www.karger.com/Article/FullText/475516

https://scihubtw.tw/10.1071/rd17501

https://scihubtw.tw/10.1111/j.1365-2265.2010.03903.x

In females, the uterus, the Fallopian tubes and the upper third of the vagina are derived from the Müllerian ducts. In males, these ducts regress by action of the anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH), which is secreted by the testes. Males with PMDS have Müllerian remnants because of mutations on the AMH or its receptor genes. They have otherwise a typical male reproductive system, though as result of their condition they may have cryptorchidism (undescended testes) or inguinal hernias. Infertility and risk of testicular or Müllerian malignancies are also common complications.

It appears there has been cases of males with this condition that present cyclic hematuria (i.e. blood in the urine), which may be explained by a hormonal imbalance (little androgens and excess of estrogens) leading to endometrial bleeding, and the presence of a fistula. However, that does NOT mean they can become pregnant. To be able to get pregnant, first of all, you need to have functional ovaries, which males with PMDS don’t have.

[–]MarkTwainiac 6 insightful - 1 fun6 insightful - 0 fun7 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

If males can have female sex organs, and produce/release eggs, and females can have male sex organs, and produce/release sperm

You're mushing together too many things at once. Males with PMDS can have Mullerian structures, or remnants of them. But the ovaries are not Mullerian structures. So even males with PMDS who have a uterus and Fallopian tubes, or remnants of them, cannot "produce/release eggs."

Normally developed males without any DSDs can sometimes have blood in their semen/sperm/ejaculate as well as in their urine for a whole host of reasons; some can have internal pelvic bleeding as well. Males with PMDS sometimes have blood come out their penises too, and inside their pelvises, for all the same reasons as other males - and for additional ones relating to their unusual internal anatomy and how it's connected to the customary male organs in their reproductive tracts. But if/when males with PMDS have bleeding from their penises or in their pelvises, they are not having menstrual periods!

To have menstrual periods, a human has to have two things: ovaries or an ovary capable of ovulating - maturing & releasing eggs - as well as a uterus. Before the age of menarche (first period) and after menopause, girls & women do not have periods even when their ovaries and uteri are intact, normal and healthy. Coz customarily girls & women are only capable of ovulating - maturing & releasing eggs - during a portion of the female life cycle that usually lasts for about 40 years, from age 11 to 51 on average.

At no point in the male life cycle is any boy or man with or without a DSD capable of ovulating or menstruating! Genital and pelvic bleeding in males is never a period. And not all the pelvic and genital bleeding that girls & women have is a period, either. Females can bleed in the pelvis, and from the vagina, for a host of reasons apart from menstruation.

Female humans cannot produce sperm. In all of recorded history, there has never been a single case documented case of a person able to produce/release both kinds of gametes.

But like I said on the other sub, the larger issue here is that you are choosing to spend your time "in a mental health chatroom" on the internet engaging with random strangers who most likely are not right in the head and taking what they tell you seriously, as if it's the truth. And then you are surprised when these mentally unwell men who are most likely bullshitting you call you insane. Who'd a thunk it?

[–][deleted] 4 insightful - 1 fun4 insightful - 0 fun5 insightful - 1 fun -  (5 children)

I've been watching the arguments about biological sex unfold over on GCdebatesQT, and I think the problem is that sex is an abstract word. I believe the issue is that you believe abstract words are meaningless, because they are imperfect.

ab·stract adjective /abˈstrakt,ˈabˌstrakt/ 1. existing in thought or as an idea but not having a physical or concrete existence. "abstract concepts such as love or beauty"

Biological sex is real, but it is a shorthand for a number of different complex phenomena, such as gametes, reproductive organs, ability to reproduce, chromosomes, secondary sex characteristics, and sexual dimorphism. Typically all of these things line up together to form male and female. Given all of the variables that the term contains, there are going to be exceptions and nuances.

For example, male = XY, Female = XX, is not the complete definition of biological sex as that covers only the chromosomal aspect of biological sex. People with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome have XY chromosomes but can appear to be female and are raised as female (sexual dimorphism, secondary sex characteristics, socialization) but do not have uteruses (reproductive organs) and can't produce eggs (gametes.)

What I see TRAs do is argue that because the word 'sex' generalizes in some ways (as it is a general term) it is completely meaningless. Basic observation of reality will tell you that is not true. If you have two labeled buckets for sorting objects and some things can't go in one bucket or the other, or require some nuance, that doesn't mean that the buckets themselves aren't needed. But TRAs do not want the buckets to exist, so they point to the thing that doesn't fit as evidence that the buckets need to go or that the buckets never existed - ignoring that 99% of objects can go into one or the other, proving the buckets are useful.

You are not arguing about biological sex. You are arguing about language. You don't like that it has nuance. Please get off the internet. You appear unwell and like you need more tangible connections with reality. Go take care of some chickens or something.

[–]BiologyIsReal 6 insightful - 1 fun6 insightful - 0 fun7 insightful - 1 fun -  (4 children)

OP doesn't believe this stuff. She stumbles upon TRA's arguments on the internet and then ask us to debunk them.

[–]MarkTwainiac 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Stumbles my ass, LOL. My impression is that OP deliberately goes looking for absurd TRA claims so she can come here and demand that we debunk them for her. Her petulant, faux innocent naivete is grating - and the mask has slipped.

[–][deleted] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Oh look, it's OP responding to none of the comments talking about the issue but making sure to pop in and complain about seeming disingenuous.

[–]Tea_Or_Coffee 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

My impression is that OP deliberately goes looking for absurd TRA claims so she can come here and demand that we debunk them for her.

No, I stumble upon them. Almost everytime I search for something or interact with someone on the internet, I hear tra claims I don't know how to debunk. That's why I come here instead.

I got banned from a discord server two days ago because I said I don't want to deal with 'trans' people and want a group for just women. The 'trans' owner banned me. When tras are everywhere, it's given I stumble upon claims like this.

[–][deleted] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

One must either believe that op is acting in bad faith or is severely mentally disabled. I tend toward the former. But my answer is more for people who try to answer these endless questions - no explanation will be satisfactory because it isn't an issue of science, it is an issue of pseudoscience, ego, and doublethink.