Someone recently started a thread here claiming that patriarchy originated in ancient Rome, was spread throughout Europe during the Roman empire, and then the Europeans spread patriarchy to the rest of the world during the period of European global expansion. According to the theory the OP put forward, many cultures in other parts of the world were not (very) patriarchal until European colonizers showed up.
I took time to compose a thoughtful reply debunking this view, but as soon as I did the OP deleted the thread. Since I put in time, and I've heard the ideas espoused by the OP from other parties, I'm reposting my reply here.
As I do, I want to make a plea to other posters: if you start a thread - or make a comment - and others disagree with you, or debunk your ideas, or tell you that you've got the facts wrong, please don't delete. Engage in a dialogue. There's nothing wrong with getting things wrong. As someone once said, to err is human.
In a recent thread here, I completely misinterpreted the message a TikTok video and was told so. No big deal. I was wrong coz I didn't pay sufficient attention to details in that case.
In other threads on this sub, I have made factual errors and other posters have corrected me. Some mocked me for my mistake too. But the mockery is beside the point. The point was, I made errors of fact, others corrected me, so I checked my facts, then acknowledged and made apologies for my errors. That's one way we learn.
When we just fold up our cards and push "delete," no dialogue or learning can occur. Saying "never mind" or "forget it" or "I never said that" is much the same as saying "No debate!" And look where that's gotten us all.
Anyways, below is the reply I wrote to the OP that started that thread. It's no great shakes, but I didn't write it for it - and the larger topic of convo - to be disappeared:
Europeans initially warred with and colonized their close neighbors, mainly other Europeans and others nearby, such the lands bordering on the Mediterranean. There were excursions of Europeans into North Africa and Asia during the times of the ancient Greeks, prior to the era of the Roman empire.
In the ancient world, there also was lots of colonization and many empires that had nothing at all to do with any Europeans.
In the post-Roman-empire era, Europeans only started colonizing other parts of the world in the period after Columbus, just under 530 years ago.
You really think male dominance, male supremacy and male control in the Arab world, Persia, the Indian sub-continent, Russia and the "stan" countries, the Middle East, Africa, and the Americas only arose when colonizers from (Western) Europe showed up?
How then do you account for the patriarchal traditions of Judaism, Christianity and Islam - all of which originated in the Middle East long before Christopher Columbus?
European attempts to colonize parts of the Islamic world are much more recent than the Columbus era - occurring in the 19th and 20th centuries, after 1830. Are you really claiming that there was no patriarchy in places like Algeria, Tunisia, Libya and the Sudan until white guys from Europe in the 19th century showed up with their weapons and started asserting they were the boss man?
Europe than took over the whole world (practically), spreading their very patriarchal cultures (which originated when the Romans came). Exceptions in Asia- Japan, China (maybe a few others- Asian history is not a strong point)- but these two had very patriarchal ancient cultures.
Europeans did not take over the whole world - just a lot of it. Nor were Europeans the only people who took over vast parts of the world outside their native territories, as people like the Persians and the Armenians know full well.
Please look into the history of Islamic empires - not coz they were the only other imperial forces in history, but coz Islamic colonization is on par with European colonization in terms of reach, but it predated European colonization by many centuries.
The Islamic conquests and colonization of a good chunk of the world began in Arabia in the 7th century and quickly spread to places - such as Persia, Turkey, Armenia, North Africa, Eastern Europe, parts of Western Europe (Spain), India, and sub-Saharan Africa - many hundreds of years before Europeans like Columbus, Magellan, de Gama, Vespucci started traveling the world. Why do you think it is that in places very far from the Arabian peninsula where Islam began - such as Indonesia, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan - the state religion that everyone must follow is one in which all the prayers must be said in Arabic, all the sacred texts are in Arabic and can only be studied and memorized in Arabic, and during daily prayers everyone must face Mecca - a city in modern-day Saudi Arabia?
Many native tribes (globally) also had less patriarchal societies.
Can you name these tribes and explain how they were less patriarchal than Western Europe at the time? I don't see how it's accurate to claim that, for example, the Maya, Aztec and Inca were less patriarchal than Western European societies.
The fact that in some/many cultures outside Europe, females have been allowed to occupy certain high-status and influential positions does necessarily mean those cultures were not patriarchal.
IIRC, when the European superpowers Spain and Great Britain started colonizing the Americas, it was in the name of, and at the behest of, two incredibly strong, powerful female monarchs - Isabella of Spain and Elizabeth I of England. Does the fact that these two women were European rulers mean Europe back then was not patriarchal?
Since you're focused on Rome, let's take an example from there: In Roman Catholic theology, the most venerated person after Jesus is his mother, Mary. She is the only human being other than Jesus said to have risen to heaven with her body. That's because in the RC view, Mary is the "the Immaculate Conception," the only human being ever to be conceived without the stain of original sin - a status not granted to Jesus, and one that actually puts her above Jesus in the sense of purity and holiness. Mary is also the only saint that RCs are allowed to pray to, as she is seen to be able to intercede on behalf of the faithful coz her word holds sway with God/the Trinity. Yet the fact that Mary is so venerated in RCC theology - and that Roman Catholicism also has elevated quite a lot of other women to sainthood and influential roles - does not mean the RC Church is not patriarchal. It's one of the most patriarchal institutions in the world.
At the same time, however, I think it's naive to suggest that Roman culture prior to or since Roman Catholicism - or the other forms of culture, society and Christianity that sprang from these later in Europe prior to and after 1492 - are the sole sources for patriarchy in most of the rest of the world.
Correction: the statement that Mary is also the only saint that RCs are allowed to pray to is incorrect, as Shesstealthy has pointed out in her post below. I apologize for making the errror.
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