GC: If biological sex is just about roles in reproduction, does that mean someone doesn't have a biological sex and isn't a man or a woman if they don't reproduce? And that in the times they do things that don't lead to reproduction, they have no biological sex?

submitted by Nohope from self.GCdebatesQT

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[–]les4les 13 insightful - 1 fun13 insightful - 0 fun14 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Even if you have your genitals surgically modified or you are a homosexual or celibate, you still have a sex at birth or a "would-be" role in reproduction. The vast majority of people are born with the capability to either ovulate or produce sperm, and nobody has the ability to do both

[–]MezozoicGaygay male 12 insightful - 1 fun12 insightful - 0 fun13 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Not only that, whole organism is built around that function, with clear differences in hormonal levels, inner organs and differences in them (colon length and structure, for example), muscle and bone structure, skeletal differences, and more. So even if somehow person is infertile - whole body was still built around the fact that it was supposed to be fertile in one or another way (except rare disorders).

Some very basic examples on why transwomen can't have women's gait and always look like gay man gait from behind (my gay radar eye is trained to find other gay men): https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=UEZrNLagwls

To neutralize those differences, around 90+% of organism must be replaced, so that will be basically "placing your brain with memories into new body". And even then there could be needed changes in brain to make it able to control new hormones and hormonal cycles.

[–]Spikygrasspod 7 insightful - 2 fun7 insightful - 1 fun8 insightful - 2 fun -  (0 children)

We all (even dogs, apparently) are laser sharp at detecting men and women, except youngsters who have lost this ability due to exposure to postmodern deconstruction.