Is it a legitimate reason for divorce because the husband has sexual dysfunction?
submitted 4 years ago by [deleted] from (self.AskSaidIt)
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[–]FormosaOolong 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun - 4 years ago* (3 children)
For some people this could be a viable solution. Especially for those who are secure enough in their commitment to one another to not feel "possessive." I have known several polyamourous couples, with very clear boundaries around their "primary", "secondary", "fluid-bonded" etc. That's not a solution for everybody, but it works for some. It requires emotional maturity.
[–][deleted] 4 years ago (2 children)
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[–]Tiwaking 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun - 4 years ago (1 child)
Polyamory is when you have more than one...well, 'lover' I suppose you can call it. That forms the foundation of an open marriage, where both partners can have sex with other people.
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[–]FormosaOolong 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun - (3 children)
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[–]Tiwaking 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun - (1 child)