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[–]toonhead 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

Imo, sure. If you're incompatible, then you have the reason do divorce.

I don't see how does that liberate the husband from paying alimony.

[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun -  (2 children)

There are two things that need to be cleared up.

  1. Was the dysfunction known BEFORE the marriage? i.e. Was the wife a victim of deception?
  2. Is the dysfunction preventable?

If its some kind of preventable thing and the husband refuses to cooperate, then yeah: Alimony.

If its not then alimony will have to be a separate court issue.

[–]toonhead 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

Why the hell does that matter? If the couple divorces and they have kids younger than 18 then he's bound to pay alimony, regardless of the cause of divorce.

Besides, it's plausible it's unpreventable and caused during the marriage too.

[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 3 fun2 insightful - 2 fun3 insightful - 3 fun -  (0 children)

If the couple divorces and they have kids younger than 18 then he's bound to pay alimony, regardless of the cause of divorce.

Hoho!

What happens if they are not his kids?

edit: This happened to someone I know.