Is it a legitimate reason for divorce because the husband has sexual dysfunction?
submitted 4 years ago by [deleted] from (self.AskSaidIt)
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[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun - 4 years ago (2 children)
There are two things that need to be cleared up.
If its some kind of preventable thing and the husband refuses to cooperate, then yeah: Alimony.
If its not then alimony will have to be a separate court issue.
[–]toonhead 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun - 4 years ago (1 child)
Why the hell does that matter? If the couple divorces and they have kids younger than 18 then he's bound to pay alimony, regardless of the cause of divorce.
Besides, it's plausible it's unpreventable and caused during the marriage too.
[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 3 fun2 insightful - 2 fun3 insightful - 2 fun3 insightful - 3 fun - 4 years ago (0 children)
If the couple divorces and they have kids younger than 18 then he's bound to pay alimony, regardless of the cause of divorce.
Hoho!
What happens if they are not his kids?
edit: This happened to someone I know.
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[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 2 fun2 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 2 fun - (2 children)
[–]toonhead 3 insightful - 1 fun3 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 0 fun4 insightful - 1 fun - (1 child)
[–]Tiwaking 2 insightful - 3 fun2 insightful - 2 fun3 insightful - 2 fun3 insightful - 3 fun - (0 children)