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[–]dontbuyanylogos[S] 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (3 children)

She doesn't really ask a question to be honest, her implication is that it's offensive Jews to be compared to the Nazis because of "people who actually suffered under Nazi rule"

[–]HugodeCrevellier 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (2 children)

Did I say she 'asked a question'?

She made 'a statement'.

And that statement is that calling people "Nazis" is extremely offensive when certain people are German (not Jewish) ... "GERMAN"!

The reference of course is that it's actually the German people who "suffered under Nazi rule" (obviously since it was they who lived 'under Nazi rule') something that would for example result in the mass murder of Germans ... by the 'Allies' granted ... but, hey, when the 'Allies' were targeting and purposely mass murdering German civilians, women and children, they were doing so to 'get them Nazis' ... so it's perceived to also have been the Nazis' fault.

[–]dontbuyanylogos[S] 2 insightful - 1 fun2 insightful - 0 fun3 insightful - 1 fun -  (1 child)

well if you're right then Finkelstein would have jumped the gun a bit wouldn't he... i dont think you are though, I think she's saying it's offensive to Germans and Jews (who suffered under Nazi rule). She also starts off by referring to his 'references of Jewish people to Nazis'.

[–]HugodeCrevellier 1 insightful - 1 fun1 insightful - 0 fun2 insightful - 1 fun -  (0 children)

Sure, if she's only referring to the suffering of Jewish Germans under the Nazis (which is very possible), then his rant does indeed address what she said.